Document 7

THE SALVATION OF NON-CHRISTIANS

A CHRISTIAN VIEW

Thomas Aquinas

Summa theologiae

 


II-II, Question 2: The act of faith, Sixth article: Whether all are equally bound to have explicit faith.

II-II, Question 10, Seventh Article:  Whether it is necessary for the salvation of all that they should believe explicitly in the mystery of Christ

I-II, Question 106, First Article, Reply to Objection 3

I-II, Question 89, Sixth Article:  Whether venial sin can be in anyone with original sin alone


II-II, Question 2: The act of faith, Sixth article: Whether all are equally bound to have explicit faith.

The unfolding of matters of faith is the result of divine revelation, for matters of faith surpass natural reason.  Now divine revelation reaches those of lower degree through those who are over them, in a certain order, to men, for instance, through the angels, and to the lower angels through the higher angels, as Dionysius explains.  In like manner, therefore, the unfolding of faith must reach men of lower degree through those of higher degree.  Consequently, just as the higher angels, who enlighten those who are below them, have a fuller knowledge of divine things than the lower angels, as Dionysius states, so too men of higher degree, whose business it is to teach others, are under obligation to have fuller knowledge of matters of faith and to believe them more explicitly.

II-II, Question 10, Seventh Article:  Whether it is necessary for the salvation of all that they should believe explicitly in the mystery of Christ

I answer that the object of faith includes, properly and directly, that thing through which man obtains beatitude.  Now the mystery of Christ=s Incarnation and Passion is the way by which men obtain beatitude; for it is written (Acts 4:12): AThere is no other name under heaven given to men, whereby we must be saved.@  Therefore belief of some kind in the mystery of Christ=s Incarnation was necessary at all times and for all persons, but this belief differed according to differences of times and persons.  The reason of this is that before the state of sin, man believed explicitly in Christ=s Incarnation, in so far as it was intended for the consummation of glory, but not as it was intended to deliver man from sin by the Passion and Resurrection, since man had no foreknowledge of his future sin.  He does, however, seem to have had foreknowledge of the Incarnation of Christ, from the fact that he said (Gen 2:24): AWherefore a man shall leave father and mother and shall cleave to his wife,@ of which the Apostle says (Eph 5:32) that Athis is a great sacrament... in Christ and the Church,@ and it is incredible that the first man was ignorant about this sacrament.


But after sin, man believed explicitly in Christ, not only as to the Incarnation, but also as to the Passion and Resurrection, whereby the human race is delivered from sin and death: for they would not, else, have foreshadowed Christ=s passion by certain sacrifices both before and after the law, the meaning of which sacrifices was known by the learned explicitly, while the simple folk, under the veil of those sacrifices, believed them to be ordained by God in reference to Christ=s coming, and thus their knowledge was covered with a veil, so to speak.  And the nearer they were to Christ, the more distinct was their knowledge of Christ=s mysteries.

After grace had been revealed, both learned and simple folk are bound to explicit faith in the mysteries of Christ, chiefly as regards those which are observed throughout the Church, and publicly proclaimed, such as the articles which refer to the Incarnation.  As to other minute points in reference to the articles of the Incarnation, men have been bound to believe them more or less explicitly according to each one=s state and office.

Objection 3:  Many gentiles obtained salvation through the ministry of the angels, as Dionysius states (Celestial Hierarchy, 9).  now it would seem that the gentiles had neither explicit nor implicit faith in Christ, since they received no revelation.  Therefore it seems that it was not necessary for the salvation of all to believe explicitly in the mystery of Christ.

Reply to Objection 3:  Many of the gentiles received revelation of Christ...  If, however, some were saved without receiving any revelation, they were not saved without faith in a mediator, for, though they did not believe in Him explicitly, they did, nevertheless, have implicit faith through believing in Divine providence, since they believed that God would deliver mankind in whatever way was pleasing to Him, and according to the revelation of the Spirit of those who knew the truth, as stated in Job 35:11: AWho teaches us more than the beasts of the earth.@

I-II, Question 106, First Article, Reply to Objection 3

No man ever had the grace of the Holy Spirit except through faith in Christ either explicit or implicit; and by this faith in Christ man belongs to the New Testament.

I-II, Question 89, Sixth Article:  Whether venial sin can be in anyone with original sin alone

I answer that it is impossible for venial sin to be in anyone with original sin alone, and without mortal sin.  The reason for this is because before a man comes to the age of discretion, the lack of years hinders the use of reason and excuses him from mortal sin, wherefore, much more does it excuse him from venial sin, if he does anything which is such generically.  But when he begins to have the use of reason, he is note entirely excused from the guilt of venial or mortal sin.  Now the first thing that occurs to a man to think about then, is to deliberate about himself.  And if he then direct himself to the due end, he will, by means of grace, receive the remission of original sin: whereas if he does not then direct himself to the due end, as far as he is capable of discretion at that particular age, he will sin mortally, through not doing that which is in his power to do.  Accordingly thenceforward there cannot be venial sin in him without mortal, until afterwards all sin shall have been remitted to him through grace.

Objection 3:  It is possible to fix the time at which a child is first able to commit an actual sin: and when the child comes to that time, it can stay a short time at least, without committing a mortal sin, because this happens in the worst criminals.  Now it is possible for the child to sin venially during that space of time, however short it may be.  Therefore venial sin can be in anyone with original sin alone and without mortal sin.


Reply to Objection 3:  The child that is beginning to have the use of reason can refrain from other mortal sins for a time, but it is not free from the aforesaid sin of omission, unless it turns to God as soon as possible.  For the first thing that occurs to a man who has discretion, is to think of himself, and to direct other things to himself as to their end, since the end is the first thing in the intention.  Therefore this is the time when man is bound by God=s affirmative precept, which the Lord expressed by saying (Zach 1:30: ATurn to me... and I will turn to you.@